I was not speaking about the cause and nature of the revolution. I was speaking about the nature of the society and government post-revolution. The nature and causes of the revolution are only germane insofar as they influenced the society and post-revolution government. That said, matt is correct in that there are cultural differences; however, I believe he over-estimates the direct significance of these. Both the French and the English were predominantly Christian, with the political ramifications endemic to Christianity. The primary difference relates to the underlying differences in the feudal systems of each country's past. The English approached the feudal system as a strict-contract based system. The vassals would swear to spend a portion of their year labouring on behalf of their leige, and to support him in cerain endeavours. Meanwhile, the leige swore to protect the vassals, and look after their interests in the larger political situation. It was believed that the leige held the right to be the leige (during good behaviour) due to divine right. However, if the leige broke the contract, the vassals would no longer be bound to follow him. When you keep this tradition in mind while examining the underpinnings of the revolution, the colonies had charters (contracts) with the king. These contracts allowed them their own legislature, under the king. Even those who realised they did not need the king's permission to be in America had no reason (and no just cause) to dissolve the contract. (I'm leaving aside the argument that the people in the revolution were not the original parties to the contract and so it had no hold on them; they did not believe that.) So when parliment began abusing the colonies, the legislatures of the colonies appealed to the king, who either refused to take action or openly sided with parliment. The argument amongst the colonists was not so much about the right of the king to rule as it was about whether the king had broken his contractual obligations to the colonies, thereby losing his claim to rule.
Meanwhile, the French position was similar. The leige swears to protect and serve the interests of the vassal and the vassal swears obedience to the leige. The primary difference came in how breaches of the contract were to be handled. Because the majority of French freemen were denied access to weapons and training with weapons, the final recourse available was not armed resistance, but petition to other lords. If it is the king abusing his people, then there is little recourse available. I believe it is this lack of arms on the part of the subjects which led to the bloody nature of the French revolution.
As for the issues today, I believe they arise more from the reverse side of the coin. Matt claims that the question of the origin of rights is at play, and to some extent it is. But on the other side of that same coin is the question of the origin of power and authority. The English believed authority came from God, Jefferson and his ilk believed authority came to the government from the consent of the governed (and indirectly from God, who made all men soverign over their own homes and property, their authority is then delegated to the government). Today we hear that political authority comes from the will of the majority, full stop. Since the one who issues authority determines what the limits of the authority are, they also determine what rights people have. If it is believed that authority comes from God, then the limits on authority also come from God (and rights). This is why Franklin was so terrified of democracy, which in every historical case has derived its supposed authority from the majority.
My point about the linguistic issues in French and Spanish countries, like I said, has little to do directly with the justification of the revolutions. However, the English notion that the king could greatly restrict the freedom of Englishmen, but could not presume them guilty (and therefore could not restrict their liberty), is hardly possible in other languages. When I was taking conversational Spanish, we spent a lot of time discussing philosophy and politics, simply because it was a topic of interest to the students and the topic doesn't really matter in that class. It was incredibly difficult to explain the philosophical basis of America when certain words are simply missing from the language. (No, it is not just that I don't know the words, after class I explained in English to the professor what I was trying to explain, and they said that the words I was wanting are simply not there). I remember a linguistic experiment with a tribe which had no concept of private property in their language. There was a property-related civil case which was tried using their language. The plantiff's lawyer could not even explain what was at issue due to the linguistic limitation. My supposition is that the lack of versitility in these romance languages helped create the culture which led to the failed revolutions. Even if they got copies of Locke's essays translated into French, the translation would lose much of the original meaning.